A standard and very reasonable question people have when first learning about schemes is the following: is it true that every affine open subset of an affine scheme is a distinguished/principal open subset? The answer is (as most of you know) is “no”, so the follow-up question is: “what is a simple example that is rigorously provable to someone at the stage where they ask this question”.

Nikolas Kuhn gave a slick answer to this question. Consider the cuspidal curve y^2=x^3 in the plane \mathbf{A}^2_k (where k is of course a field), which has normalization \mathbf{A}^1_k = \text{Spec} \; k[t]. Then if you remove (1,1), you get an affine open subset (why?), but that set is not even set-theoretically cut out by a single equation (hint: pull the equation back to be a function of t, but notice that this equation doesn’t lie in the subring k[x,y]/(y^2-x^3) = k[t^2, t^3] \subset k[t].

Entertaining follow-up question: this affine open set is \text{Spec} \; B for some ring B. What is B?